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2. True comments related to the “risk score” in clinical documentation include all EXCEPT:
3. Which of the following is a Major Comorbid Condition (MCC)?
4. The Medicare Spend Per Beneficiary calculation performed by CMS is
5. A 65 year old female developed a nodule on the left thyroid gland and it was removed surgically after FNA showed malignancy. It was completely excised and lymph nodes were removed and all negative. She was released from ENT back to her PCP for long term management. This occurred last year and you are seeing her for the first time this year and you diagnose her with a “History of Papillary Thyroid Cancer”. Which of the following is correct?
6. A 78 year old male is having numbness in his lower extremities from DMII of 40 years duration. His last A1c was 6.9. Medications have controlled his symptoms. His microalbumin was 40. You diagnose him with diabetic neuropathy as well as diabetic nephropathy. It is January and this is the first visit with you this year. True statements include: (choose all that apply)
7. The Principal Diagnosis (reason for admission) and all secondary diagnoses (impacting condition) and procedures related to the admission come together to make the
8. Which condition has the highest risk score?
9. CMS uses risk adjustment when calculating the relative performance of a Medicare-enrolled provider on such metrics as:
10. A right-handed patient presents to your office for a routine follow-up of his hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia. He had a CVA four years ago with residual paresis in his left hand and upper extremity. Physical therapy has completed their work. With respect to the stroke condition, the best way to capture that diagnosis is to use a code for